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The CCDE certification program is intended for professionals with extensive experience in network design and architecture. Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) Written Exam certification is recognized globally as a mark of expertise in this field, and it is highly regarded by organizations looking to hire network designers and architects. The CCDE certification program is designed to help professionals develop the skills and knowledge needed to design and implement complex network infrastructure solutions.
Cisco 400-007, also known as the Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.0) Written exam, is a certification exam designed for network architects, engineers, and designers who are looking to validate their advanced knowledge and skills in network design principles, methodologies, and best practices. 400-007 exam measures a candidate's ability to analyze complex network requirements and design solutions that meet business goals and objectives, while also considering technical and budget constraints.
NEW QUESTION # 148
A Service Provider is designing a solution for a managed CE service to a number of local customers using a single CE platform and wants to have logical separation on the CE platform using Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) based on IP address ranges or packet length.
Which is the most scalable solution to provide this type of VRF Selection process on the CE edge device?
- A. Multi-Protocol BGP
- B. Policy Based Routing
- C. Static Routes for Route Leaking
- D. OSPF per VRF Instance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 149
You are designing the routing design for two merging companies that have overlapping IP address space.
Which of these must you consider when developing the routing and NAT design?
- A. Global to local NAT translation is done after policy-based routing
- B. Global to local NAT translation is done before routing
- C. Local to global NAT translation is done after routing
- D. Local to global NAT translation is done before policy-based routing
Answer: D
Explanation:
In most Cisco NAT implementations:
* Local-to-global NAT translations occur before policy-based routing (PBR), meaning that NAT happens first, and then PBR decisions are made based on the translated addresses.
* This sequence is important when designing overlapping address spaces, as NAT must be applied before routing policies can correctly forward traffic based on global addresses.
Other options explained:
* A: Incorrect sequence.
* B/D: Global-to-local translations occur during inbound processing but not in the order described relative to PBR.
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NEW QUESTION # 150
What are two examples of business goals to be considered when a network design is built? (Choose two.)
- A. minimize operational costs
- B. reduce complexity
- C. ensure faster obsolescence
- D. standardize resiliency
- E. integrate endpoint posture
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
* B (Minimize operational costs): A common business goal to reduce long-term operating expenses.
* E (Reduce complexity): Simplifying designs reduces operational overhead, risk, and failure domains.
Why other options are incorrect:
* A: Resiliency is a design goal, but not a business objective itself.
* C: Endpoint posture is a technical security feature.
* D: Faster obsolescence contradicts business optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 151
Drag and drop the FCAPS network management reference models from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION # 152
Refer to the table.
A customer investigates connectivity options for a DCI between two production data centers to aid a large-scale migration project. The migration is estimated to take 20 months to complete but might extend an additional 10 months if issues arise. All connectivity options meet the requirements to migrate workloads. Which transport technology provides the best ROI based on cost and flexibility?
- A. CWDM over dark fiber
- B. MPLS
- C. Metro Ethernet
- D. DWDM over dark fiber
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 153
Which technology is an open-source infrastructure automation tool that automates repetitive tasks for users who work in networks such as cloud provisioning and intraservice orchestration?
- A. Ansible
- B. Contrail
- C. Jinja2
- D. Java
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Ansible is an open-source automation tool that enables configuration management, application deployment, cloud provisioning, and orchestration.
* It uses simple YAML-based playbooks and SSH-based connectivity, making it agentless, highly scalable, and easy to integrate with networking environments.
* Commonly adopted in network automation, cloud infrastructure provisioning, and service orchestration as part of modern network design practices covered under CCDE v3.1.
Why other options are incorrect:
* B (Contrail): Network virtualization platform, not primarily an automation tool.
* C (Java): General-purpose programming language, not specifically designed for infrastructure automation.
* D (Jinja2): Templating engine, used inside Ansible but not an automation tool by itself.
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NEW QUESTION # 154
As technologies such as big data, cloud, and loT continue to grow, so will the demand for network bandwidth Business strategies must be flexible to accommodate these changes when it comes to priorities and direction and the network design strategy also must be agile and adaptable Drag and drop the benefits from the left onto the corresponding strategic approaches on the right as they relate to network design and management.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 155
A Service Provider is designing a solution for a managed CE service to a number of local customers using a single CE platform and wants to have logical separation on the CE platform using Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) based on IP address ranges or packet length. Which is the most scalable solution to provide this type of VRF Selection process on the CE edge device?
- A. Multi-Protocol BGP
- B. Policy Based Routing
- C. Static Routes for Route Leaking
- D. OSPF per VRF Instance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 156
What are two parameters that can be leveraged by SAML in mixed private/public cloud environments by using identity and asset management? (Choose two.)
- A. identity federations
- B. policy-based tokens
- C. unified directories
- D. multifactor hard tokens
- E. link federations
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
In mixed private/public cloud environments, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) can leverage various parameters to enhance identity and asset management. Among the options provided, the two most pertinent parameters are:
Identity federation is a core concept in SAML, enabling users to access multiple systems across different organizations or domains using a single set of credentials. This is achieved through the establishment of trust relationships between identity providers (IdPs) and service providers (SPs), facilitating seamless single sign-on (SSO) experiences. In hybrid cloud environments, identity federation allows for centralized authentication, reducing the need for multiple credentials and enhancing security.
SAML utilizes tokens, known as assertions, which contain authentication and authorization information about users. These tokens can be policy-based, meaning they are issued and validated according to specific security policies and access controls defined by the organization.
Policy-based tokens ensure that access to resources is granted based on predefined rules, enhancing security and compliance in cloud environments.
By leveraging identity federations and policy-based tokens, organizations can effectively manage identities and assets across mixed cloud environments, ensuring secure and efficient access to resources.
NEW QUESTION # 157
As network designer, which option is your main concern with regards to virtualizing multiple network zones into a single hardware device?
- A. CPU resource allocation
- B. Bandwidth allocation
- C. Security
- D. Congestion control
- E. Fate sharing
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 158
What are two advantages of controller-based networks versus traditional networks? (Choose two.)
- A. more consistent device configuration
- B. the ability to configure the features for the network rather than per device
- C. programmatic APIs that are available per device
- D. more flexible configuration per device
- E. the ability to have forwarding tables at each device
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 159
The CIA triad is foundational to information security, and one can be certain that one or more of the principles within the CIA triad has been violated when data is leaked or a system is attacked Drag and drop the countermeasures on the left to the appropriate principle section on the right in any order
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 160
An organization with 9000 users across 40 branches was using modem applications and their 15 years old network equipment failed several times to meet applications and users requirements.
The organization decided for some cost cuttings and to migrate some of applications to the public cloud. Which of the cost related benefits will this migrations and cost cutting realize?
- A. Capex
- B. TCO
- C. ROI
- D. OpEx
Answer: D
Explanation:
Migrating applications to the public cloud shifts spend from large up-front hardware purchases (CapEx) to pay-as-you-go operational expenses (OpEx).
This aligns with the scenario of replacing failed, aging equipment and doing cost cutting by using cloud services instead of buying new hardware.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which two factors provide multifactor authentication for secure access to applications and data? (Choose two.)
- A. Pull-based
- B. Persona-based
- C. Possession-based
- D. Power-based
- E. Push-based
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
* C (Push-based):Push notifications to a registered device (typically a phone) are used as a second authentication factor.
* D (Possession-based):Possession factor includes physical tokens, smart cards, or registered devices - verifying that the user possesses something unique.
Other options explained:
* A/B/E: Not valid MFA factors under standard authentication frameworks.
NEW QUESTION # 162
The security department at a bank is evaluating its data governance policy. A security officer requests that processes be developed to define who within the bank has authority and control over data assets and how the data assets can be used. The security officer also states that the policy must encompass the users, processes and technologies needed to manage and protect the data assets.
What are two goals of the new data governance policy? (Choose two.)
- A. Support network segmentation.
- B. Increase the value of the data.
- C. Decrease the size of the data.
- D. Enforce data encryption at rest and in transit.
- E. Establish internal rules for data use.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Data governance establishes internal rules for data use by defining ownership, authority, and control.
By ensuring proper management and protection, data governance increases the value of the data as a trusted business asset.
NEW QUESTION # 163
Resilient technology needs to be agile, scalable, flexible, recoverable, and interoperable.
Resilient technology is critical in maintaining uninterrupted services for customer and servicing them during peak times. What is addicionally required besides resiliente infrastruture to keep na organization functioning in the event of a cyberattack, data corruption, catastrophic system failure, or other type of incidentes?
- A. High data quality and recoverability
- B. Enhanced and decentralized stack system
- C. Increased visibility and transparency.
- D. Power eficiente and performing at capacity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Beyond resilient infrastructure, an organization must ensure data quality and recoverability so that after a cyberattack, corruption, or failure, it can restore accurate data from backups and continue operations.
Visibility or power efficiency help operations but are not as central to surviving and recovering from catastrophic incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Direct cloud connectivity provides secure, high-performance, and end-to-end connectivity needed to run critical
- A. end-to-end connectivity SLA with deterministic latency and performance
- B. end-to-end visibility and management of the entire enterprice network
- C. avoids network contention and unpredictable routing changes
- D. consistent and guaranteed SLA-backend performance to the closest peering point
Answer: A
Explanation:
Direct cloud connectivity offers secure, high-performance, and predictable network connections that bypass the public internet. This results in low latency, minimal jitter, and consistent performance, which are critical for running demanding and mission-critical applications. It provides service-level agreements (SLAs) that guarantee end-to-end connectivity with deterministic latency and performance, ensuring reliable and predictable network behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 165
While access lists are generally associated with routers and firewalls, they can also be applied on layer 2 interfaces and to VLANs to provide granular security. Which are two benefits of using layer 2 access lists for segmentation? (Choose two.)
- A. Contextual filtering
- B. VLAN intercept
- C. Traffic filtering
- D. Reduced load at Layer 2
- E. Containing lateral attacks
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
# Explanation:
* A: Layer 2 ACLs can block or allow specific MAC or IP traffic right at the switchport.
* C: Containing lateral attacks-Layer 2 ACLs help block unauthorized east-west traffic between hosts within the same VLAN.
Incorrect options:
* B: Contextual filtering is associated with next-gen firewalls or Layer 7 inspection.
* D: ACLs add processing load, not reduce it.
* E: VLAN intercept is not a valid Cisco term for ACL application.
NEW QUESTION # 166
Refer to the table.
A customer investigates connectivity options for a DCI between two production data centers to aid a large- scale migration project. The migration is estimated to take 20 months to complete but might extend an additional 10 months if issues arise. All connectivity options meet the requirements to migrate workloads.
Which transport technology provides the best ROI based on cost and flexibility?
- A. CWDM over dark fiber
- B. MPLS
- C. Metro Ethernet
- D. DWDM over dark fiber
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let's calculate the total cost for each solution based on the most likely maximum duration (20 + 10 = 30 months) to ensure conservative, flexible planning.
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* DWDM over dark fiber:
* CAPEX = $200,000
* OPEX (annual): $100,000#for 30 months = (2.5 × $100,000) = $250,000
* Installation fee = $30,000
* Total = $200,000 + $250,000 + $30,000 = $480,000
* CWDM over dark fiber:
* CAPEX = $150,000
* OPEX (annual): $100,000#for 30 months = (2.5 × $100,000) = $250,000
* Installation fee = $25,000
* Total = $150,000 + $250,000 + $25,000 = $425,000
* MPLS wires only:
* CAPEX = $50,000
* OPEX (annual): $180,000#for 30 months = (2.5 × $180,000) = $450,000
* Installation fee = $5,000
* Total = $50,000 + $450,000 + $5,000 = $505,000
* Metro Ethernet:
* CAPEX = $65,000
* OPEX (annual): $100,000#for 30 months = (2.5 × $100,000) = $250,000
* Installation fee = $5,000
* Total = $65,000 + $250,000 + $5,000 = $320,000
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Analysis:
* Metro Ethernet has the lowest overall cost at $320,000 and provides sufficient flexibility for workload migration since "all connectivity options meet technical requirements."
* Metro Ethernet is typically more flexible than DWDM/CWDM for temporary or dynamic migration projects because it does not require optical expertise or complex dark fiber management.
* MPLS is more expensive here and less flexible for large-scale Layer 2 migrations.
* CWDM/DWDM are suitable for permanent solutions where long-term investment is justified, but not optimal here due to cost.
Therefore, best ROI and flexibility: Metro Ethernet
Final correct answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 167
An engineer must design a network for a company that uses OSPF LFA to reduce loops. Which type of loop would be reduced by using this design?
- A. DTP
- B. STP
- C. REP
- D. Micro loops
Answer: D
Explanation:
* B (Micro loops):OSPF Loop-Free Alternates (LFA) pre-calculate backup next-hops to reduce transient micro loops during the convergence process when primary routes fail.
Other options explained:
* A: DTP relates to trunk negotiation, not loop prevention.
* C: STP handles Layer 2 loops.
* D: REP is a Cisco Layer 2 redundancy protocol, unrelated to OSPF loop prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Company XYZ is planning to deploy primary and secondary (disaster recovery) data center sites.
Each of these sites will have redundant SAN fabrics and data protection is expected between the data center sites. The sites are 100 miles (160 km) apart and target RPO/RTO are 3 hrs and 24 hrs, respectively. Which two considerations must Company XYZ bear in mind when deploying replication in their scenario? (Choose two.)
- A. Synchronous data replication must be used to meet the business requirements.
- B. VSANs must be extended from the primary to the secondary site to improve performance and availability.
- C. Target RPO/RTO requirements cannot be met due to the one-way delay introduced by the distance between sites.
- D. VSANs must be routed between sites to isolate fault domains and increase overall availability.
- E. Asynchronous data replication should be used in this scenario to avoid performance impact in the primary site.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 169
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