[Q10-Q30] Jul-2024 Realistic VMCE_v12 Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

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Jul-2024 Realistic VMCE_v12 Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Latest Veeam VMCE_v12 Practice Test Questions, Veeam Certified Engineer v12 Exam Dumps

NEW QUESTION # 10
An administrator is asked to change a backup copy job from periodic mode to immediate mode. How can this be accomplished?

  • A. Enable immediate mode on the repository.
  • B. Edit the original job and select immediate copy mode from the job settings.
  • C. Create a new copy job and delete the original job.
  • D. Modify the job settings on the proxy performing the copy job.

Answer: B

Explanation:
To change a backup copy job from periodic mode to immediate mode, an administrator can edit the original backup copy job and select the immediate copy mode from within the job settings. This change ensures that backup copy jobs are started immediatelyafter the source backup job completes, rather than waiting for a defined copy interval.References:
* Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide: Backup Copy Job
* Veeam Help Center: Backup Copy Job Modes


NEW QUESTION # 11
An engineer has 3 Veeam Backup servers in 3 different data centers. The engineer needs a way to have centralized licensing and role-based access control. How should the engineer accomplish this with the least effort?

  • A. Deploy the Enterprise Manager
  • B. Install the Remote console on a different client
  • C. Use the Veeam Web Portal
  • D. Create a web portal using REST API

Answer: A

Explanation:
Veeam Enterprise Manager provides centralized management for Veeam Backup & Replication environments. It enables the administrator to manage licensing and role-based access control across multiple Veeam Backup servers in different locations, offering a unified control panel with minimal effort compared to other options that would require more complex setups or custom development work.


NEW QUESTION # 12
An engineer wants to make sure that a single SQL Database can be recovered in a consistent manner with an RPO that will offer the least impact on the production environment during production hours. Granular restores should be performed with the Veeam console as the company does not have a DBA and is not using SQL Management Studio (SSMS).
The engineer took the following steps:
* Created a separate job for the MS SQL VMs
* At guest processing, enabled application-aware processing and provide the credentials with sufficient permissions
* Schedule the job to run every 24 hours
Which other change can the engineer make for this job to achieve the proposed goals?

  • A. Set the backup job to perform recovery using Veeam Explorer for SQL
  • B. Schedule the job to run every 30 minutes
  • C. Schedule transaction log processing every 30 minutes
  • D. Remove the VM and add only the SQL Databases in the job

Answer: C

Explanation:
To achieve the goal of recovering a single SQL Database in a consistent manner with minimal impact on the production environment during production hours, while allowing for granular restores through the Veeam console, the engineer should A: Schedule transaction log processing every 30 minutes. By enabling application-aware processing for the SQL VM and scheduling the main backup job to run every 24 hours, the base image of the SQL database is protected. However, to achieve a more granular Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and ensure the ability to restore to specific points in time, transaction log backups must be performed more frequently. Configuring the backup job to process transaction logs every 30 minutes captures the SQL database changes more frequently without the overhead of a full backup, allowing for point-in-time restores directly from the Veeam console without the need for SQL Management Studio (SSMS) or a Database Administrator (DBA). This setup aligns with the goals of maintaining operational efficiency and minimizing the impact on production while ensuring robust data protection capabilities.


NEW QUESTION # 13
A power outage on Site A is expected during the night. The disaster recovery strategy has been implemented (see diagram). What is the correct way to start replicated VMs on Site B to minimize data loss?

  • A. Execute "Permanent failover" from vCenter.
  • B. Power on VMs manually through vCenter.
  • C. Execute "Failover plan".
  • D. Execute "Planned failover".

Answer: D

Explanation:
A planned failover is a process that allows for the seamless switching from the original VMs at Site A to their replicas at Site B with no data loss. This is the correct course of action when a power outage is expected, as it is a controlled process that ensures that all data is synchronized before the switch is made. This action minimizes data loss and ensures that the VMs on Site B are up-to-date.References:
* Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide: Failover and Failback
* Veeam Help Center: Planned Failover Procedure


NEW QUESTION # 14
A physical Linux server protected by a centrally managed Veeam agent is physically damaged. A VMware vSphere infrastructure is available, and the physical server is eligible for virtualization. Which recovery step provides the lowest possible RTO?

  • A. Use instant disk recovery to Hyper-V VM.
  • B. Use Instant VM Recovery to Hyper-V VM.
  • C. Use restore guest files to Hyper-V VM.
  • D. Use bare metal restore to Hyper-V VM.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Veeam Agent for Linux User Guide1, you can use the Restore volumes option to perform bare metal recovery of your computer. However, this option requires you to boot from the Veeam Recovery Media and may take some time to complete.
Another option is to use Instant VM Recovery to VMware vSphere. This option allows you to run your Linux computer directly from a backup file as a VMware VM without restoring any data. This can significantly reduce your RTO and provide immediate access to your applications and data.


NEW QUESTION # 15
Which Veeam replication failover function ensures that changes made during a failover are copied to the original production VM?

  • A. Permanent failover
  • B. Fallback
  • C. Undo failover
  • D. Undo fallback

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Veeam replication, the function that ensures changes made during a failover are copied back to the original production VM is Fallback. This process involves reversing the replication direction after a failover, ensuring that any changes made while running on the replica are synchronized back to the original VM.References:Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide, Veeam Replication Fallback Guide


NEW QUESTION # 16
A customer has a local VMware environment that they back up locally and offload all retention to Wasabi's Cloud. The local backups have become unavailable, and the customer has to recover from Wasabi's Cloud.
What method would provide the fastest RTO from Wasabi so that users can interact with the recovered system?

  • A. Instant Recovery to local VMware VM
  • B. Restore Entire VM to local VMware VM
  • C. Instant Recovery to EC2 VM
  • D. Instant Recovery to Wasabi Cloud VM

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a scenario where a customer needs to recover from Wasabi's Cloud due to local backups becoming unavailable, the method that would provide the fastest Recovery Time Objective (RTO) while allowing users to interact with the recovered system as quickly as possible is D: Instant Recovery to local VMware VM. Veeam's Instant Recovery feature allows for the restoration of a backup directly into the production environment without the need to fully copy the backup data.
When recovering from cloud storage like Wasabi, the backup data will be streamed on-demand to the local VMware environment, allowing the VM to start running immediately while the remaining data is transferred in the background. This method minimizes downtime and provides the quickest path to operational recovery, ensuring users can access the recovered system with minimal delay. It's important to note that the effectiveness of this approach depends on the available bandwidth and the size of the data being recovered.


NEW QUESTION # 17
A customer's NAS has multiple hardware failures, and the NAS is no longer accessible. All of the users are impacted as they need to access the NAS for day-to-day work. Which restore method could minimize the service impact to the users?

  • A. Instant file share recovery
  • B. Restore of the entire file share
  • C. Restore of files and folders
  • D. Rollback to a point in time

Answer: A

Explanation:
Instant file share recovery is the most effective method to minimize service impact in this scenario.
This feature allows users to instantly access the NAS data directly from the backup files without having to wait for the entire file share to be restored. This approach is beneficial when quick access to data is crucial.


NEW QUESTION # 18
A daily backup job for seven Hyper-V VMs has been configured at the main site, keeping 14 days' worth of backup files. They want to get a copy of the VM backups to a repository at the disaster recovery site. They want to keep six months' worth of backup files at the disaster recovery site. They also need to be able to restore the VMs to any given day within two months and any given week within six months. How should a backup copy job be configured to meet these requirements?

  • A. Use immediate copy (mirroring) mode, keeping 62 days of retention and 26 weekly GFS restore points.
  • B. Use immediate copy (mirroring) mode, keeping 180 days of retention.
  • C. Use periodic copy (pruning) mode, keeping 180 days of retention.
  • D. Use periodic copy (pruning) mode, keeping 62 days of retention and six monthly GFS restore points.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Veeam Backup & Replication user guide1, you can use a long-term retention policy (GFS) to keep backup files for longer periods oftime. GFS stands for grandfather-father-son and refers to a backup rotation scheme that allows you to create weekly, monthly, quarterly and yearly restore points12.
Therefore, if you want to be able to restore the VMs to any given day within two months and any given week within six months, you should use a GFS policy with 62 days of retention and 26 weekly GFS restore points.
The simplest configuration would be an immediate copy (mirroring) mode with these settings (option B).


NEW QUESTION # 19
A company needs to maintain and verify backups at a secondary site to meet the following requirements: RTO of two hours, RPO of 12 hours, four weeks retention. Which of the following backup copy job configurations meets these requirements?

  • A. Periodic backup copy job, scheduled for a two-hour interval, with 112 restore points to retain
  • B. Periodic backup copy job, scheduled for a 12-hour interval, with 56 restore points to retain
  • C. Periodic backup copy job, scheduled for a 12-hour interval, with 112 restore points to retain
  • D. Periodic backup copy job, scheduled for a two-hour interval, with 56 restore points to retain

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 20
A physical Linux file server needs to be migrated to VMware ESXi. The server has several volumes: /dev/sda (60GB), /dev/sdb (1TB) and /dev/sdc (4TB). What is the quickest option to migrate the server?

  • A. Perform Instant Disk Recovery for each volume.
  • B. Perform Instant VM Recovery.
  • C. Export all disks, create an empty VM and attach the disks.
  • D. Create an empty VM and perform bare metal recovery inside the VM.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The quickest option for migrating a physical Linux file server with multiple volumes to VMware ESXi is to perform Instant VM Recovery. This feature allows you to run the server directly from the backup file in a VMware environment, significantly reducing the time and complexity involved in migration.References:
Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide, Veeam Instant VM Recovery for Physical Servers


NEW QUESTION # 21
A company has an RPO set at 4 hours and values data protection and disaster recovery. A disaster occurs on June 12, 2023 at 10:00 AM.
Which restore point gives the company the best RPO?

  • A. June 12,2023, 1:00 PM
  • B. June 12,2023,5:00 AM
  • C. June 12,2023,8:00 AM
  • D. June 12,2023,9:30 AM

Answer: D

Explanation:
Given the company has an RPO set at 4 hours, the restore point that gives the best RPO is the one closest to the time of the disaster without going over the disaster's timestamp. Since the disaster occurred on June 12, 2023, at 10:00 AM, the restore point at June 12, 2023, 9:30 AM would be the most recent one within the RPO threshold. This restore point minimizes data loss and provides the most current data before the disaster.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Which two public cloud infrastructures can be backed up without an agent? (Choose two.)

  • A. Alibaba Cloud
  • B. Tencent Cloud
  • C. AWS
  • D. Oracle VM Virtualbox
  • E. Microsoft Azure

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
Veeam provides agentless backup solutions for several public cloud infrastructures, among which AWS (Amazon Web Services) and Microsoft Azure are the prominent platforms supported. Thus, the correct answers are A: AWS and E: Microsoft Azure.
* For AWS, Veeam offers Veeam Backup for AWS, an agentless solution designed to protect AWS workloads by leveraging native AWS technologies. This solution allows for the backup and recovery of AWS EC2 instances without the need for agents inside the instances, providing efficient and flexible cloud-native data protection.
* In the case of Microsoft Azure, Veeam Backup for Microsoft Azure provides a similar agentless data protection capability, allowing for the backup and recovery of Azure VMs. This solution also utilizes native Azure technologies to facilitate seamless integration and management of backups within the Azure ecosystem.
These solutions are designed to provide comprehensive data protection for cloud workloads, simplifying management while ensuring robust backup and recovery capabilities in these public cloud environments.


NEW QUESTION # 23
A director has asked for a quarterly report for capacity planning purposes. Which Veeam component should be used?

  • A. Business View
  • B. Veeam Backup & Replication Console
  • C. Veeam ONE Web Client
  • D. Enterprise Manager

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Veeam ONE is a comprehensive monitoring, reporting, and capacity planning solution that provides insights into your virtual infrastructure. The Veeam ONE Web Client allows you to generate various reports, including capacity planning reports, to help you understand your infrastructure's resource utilization and make informed decisions.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows is installed on a server. A backup job is created on the server. The backup data will be sent to a Veeam Backup & Replication repository. A Veeam administrator wants to add the server to a different backup job. Which protection group would they find the server in?

  • A. Offline
  • B. Untrusted
  • C. Unattended
  • D. Unmanaged

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is an additional database restore option in the Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL?

  • A. RECOVERY
  • B. NORECOVERY
  • C. ACTIVE
  • D. SIMPLE

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is a backup mode that can be configured within a Veeam Agent for Windows backup job?

  • A. Forward incremental with optional periodic synthetic and/or active full backups
  • B. Forward incremental and reverse incremental, both with optional periodic synthetic and/or active full backups
  • C. Reverse incremental with periodic active full backups
  • D. Reverse incremental with optional periodic synthetic full backups

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/agentforwindows/userguide/backup_chain.html?ver=40


NEW QUESTION # 27
Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

  • A. Veeam ONE can verify that the server meets the minimum requirements to install Veeam Backup
    & Replication.
  • B. Veeam ONE can potentially identify infrastructure issues prior to performing a backup.
  • C. Veeam ONE is a prerequisite for Veeam Backup & Replication installation.
  • D. Veeam ONE stores the license file necessary for Veeam Backup & Replication.

Answer: B

Explanation:
It is recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication because Veeam ONE can potentially identify infrastructure issues that might affect backup operations before they are performed. This proactive approach ensures that the environment is optimized for successful backup and replication tasks.


NEW QUESTION # 28
A critical server in a Hyper-V environment has crashed and will not reboot. What is the fastest way to bring this server back online so employees can continue to work?

  • A. Instant VM Disk Recovery
  • B. Entire VM restore
  • C. Instant VM Recovery
  • D. Staged restore

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/archive/backup/110/vsphere/instant_recovery.html


NEW QUESTION # 29
A backup administrator must enable guest file system indexing for a backup job of a Microsoft Windows file server VM. All required credentials are added to the Veeam Backup & Replication server. VMware Tools (VIX) cannot be used due to security regulations. What should be done to make it possible in the following environment?

  • A. Use the proxy server as a guest interaction proxy
  • B. Use the Veeam Backup & Replication server as a quest interaction proxy
  • C. Connect the ESXi host to the VM network
  • D. Install a file system indexing plugin on the Microsoft Windows file server

Answer: A

Explanation:
If VMware Tools (VIX) cannot be used due to security regulations, the backup administrator can use the proxy server as a guest interaction proxy to enable guest file system indexing for a backup job. The guest interaction proxy is responsible for the deployment and coordination of guest processing tasks, such as guest file system indexing, which does not require VIX.References:
* Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide: Guest Interaction Proxy
* Veeam Knowledge Base: Configuring Guest Interaction Proxies


NEW QUESTION # 30
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