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NEW QUESTION # 75
Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:
- A. usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned
- B. not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others
- C. usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned
- D. usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned
Answer: A
Explanation:
The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned. The test scope defines the boundaries and limitations of the testing activities, such as the test items, the features to be tested, the features not to be tested, the test objectives, the test environment, the test resources, the test assumptions, the test risks, etc. The test scope helps to establish a common understanding of what is included and excluded from the testing, and to avoid ambiguity, confusion, or misunderstanding among the stakeholders. The other two sections, "Testing Communication" and "Stakeholders", are also important parts of a test plan, but they do not directly address the features of the test object. The testing communication describes the methods, frequency, and responsibilities for the communication and reporting of the testing progress, status, issues, and results. The stakeholders identify the roles and responsibilities of the people involved in or affected by the testing activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the customers, the users, etc. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1 ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Plan, Test Scope2
NEW QUESTION # 76
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:
[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages
[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems
[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite
[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks Which of the following statements is true?
- A. [II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk
- B. [I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks
- C. [I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks
- D. [IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because product risks are risks that affect the quality of the software product, such as defects, failures, or non-compliance with requirements or standards. Project risks are risks that affect the project's schedule, budget, resources, or scope, such as delays, cost overruns, skill gaps, or scope changes. In this case, [I] and [IV] are product risks, as they relate to the accessibility and security of the software product, which are quality attributes. [II] and [III] are project risks, as they relate to the delivery time and the test automation skills of the test team, which are project factors. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describesstatement testing?
- A. In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
- B. In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
- C. In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
- D. In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement testingaims to executeevery executable statementin the source code at least once.
* (D) is correctas statement testing ensuresmaximum statement execution.
* (A) describes branch testing, which focuses on flow transfers.
* (B) and (C) incorrectly mix decision testing and branch testing concepts.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.3.1 - Statement Testing
NEW QUESTION # 78
Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?
- A. Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed
- B. Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.
- C. Defect reports should be created for every review found
- D. Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a structured review process, it is essential to plan reviews carefully and manage them effectively.
Reviewing large work products in one go is not recommended because it can lead to oversight of issues due to fatigue or information overload. It is more efficient to break down large work products into smaller, manageable parts and review them incrementally. This ensures a thorough and effective review process.
Additionally, other practices such as planning for the review, starting discussions during review initiation, and creating defect reports for found issues are standard recommendations for an effective review process.
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NEW QUESTION # 79
Confirmation testing is performed after:
- A. a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix
- B. the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results
- C. a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed
- D. a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect. Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure
- B. Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels
- C. A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error
- D. Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions. A failure is an event in which the software system does not perform a required function or performs a function incorrectly, according to the expected behavior. A defect is a flaw in the software system or a deviation from the requirements or the specifications, that may cause a failure. However, not all failures are caused by defects, as some failures may be caused by environmental conditions, such as hardware malfunctions, network interruptions, power outages, incompatible configurations, etc. Environmental conditions are factors that affect the operation of the software system, but are not part of the software system itself. The other statements are false, because:
A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure. This statement is false, because a defect may or may not produce a failure, depending on the inputs, the outputs, the states, or the scenarios of the software system, and a bug is just another term for a defect, so it has the same possibility of producing a failure as a defect. For example, a defect in a rarely used feature or a hidden branch of the code may never produce a failure, while a defect in a frequently used feature or a critical path of the code may produce a failure often. A bug is not a different concept from a defect, but rather a synonymor a colloquial term for a defect, so it has the same definition and implications as a defect.
A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error. This statement is false, because an error is not a consequence of a failure, but rather a cause of a defect. An error is a human action or a mistake that produces a defect in the software system, such as a typo, a logic flaw, a requirement misunderstanding, etc. An error is not observable in the software system, but rather in the human mind or the human work products, such as the code, the design, the documentation, etc. A failure is not a cause of an error, but rather a result of a defect, which is a result of an error. For example, an error in the code may cause a defect in the software system, which may cause a failure in the software behavior.
Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels.
This statement is false, because bugs and failures are not different types of defects, but rather different terms for defects and their manifestations. As mentioned before, bugs are just another word for defects, and failures are the events in which the software system does not perform as expected due to defects.
Bugs and failures can be found at any test level, not only at component testing or higher test levels. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Defects and failures can occur and be detected at any test level, depending on the test objectives, the test basis, the test techniques, and the test environment. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Failure, Defect, Bug, Environmental Condition, Error, Test Level2
NEW QUESTION # 81
Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique- Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
A test-first approach involves writing tests before writing the code. In this approach, initially, the tests fail because the corresponding functionality is not yet implemented. Afterward, the code is written or modified to make the tests pass. This cycle is repeated iteratively. This method ensures that the code is developed based on predefined tests and helps in identifying issues early in the development process.
NEW QUESTION # 82
The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y
- A.
- B.
- C.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option C correctly explains what is represented by the lines A, B and the axes X, Y in a testing metrics chart.
According to option D:
* X-axis represents Time
* Y-axis represents Count
* Line A represents Number of open bugs
* Line B represents Total number of executed tests
This information is essential in understanding and analyzing the testing metrics of a completed project.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.5.1, Page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 83
A state transition diagram describes a control system's behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is"NORMAL MODE".
Which ONE of the following test cases covers anINVALID sequence?
- A. NORMAL MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE # DEGRADED MODE # EMERGENCY MODE #
DIAGNOSTIC MODE # NORMAL MODE # DEGRADED MODE - B. NORMAL MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE # NORMAL MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE #
EMERGENCY MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE # NORMAL MODE - C. NORMAL MODE # DEGRADED MODE # NORMAL MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE #
DEGRADED MODE # EMERGENCY MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE - D. NORMAL MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE # DEGRADED MODE # EMERGENCY MODE #
DIAGNOSTIC MODE # NORMAL MODE # DIAGNOSTIC MODE
Answer: B
Explanation:
State transition testing validatesvalid and invalid state transitionsbased on defined rules.
* D is invalidbecause it transitionsfrom DIAGNOSTIC MODE directly to EMERGENCY MODE, which isnot a valid state changein most systems.
* Other options follow valid sequences according tostate transition rules.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole- team approach?
- A. Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.
- B. Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.
- C. Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.
- D. Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The whole-team approach promotes collaboration among stakeholders (business representatives, developers, and testers) to ensure better quality and project success (A). This approach allows for early identification of issues, enhances shared responsibility, and improves software quality. Option C is a valid but indirect benefit, while options B and D do not directly describe the core advantage of the whole-team approach.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.5.2 - The Whole-Team Approach
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?
- A. Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)
- B. Potentially endless loops
- C. Security vulnerabilities
- D. Referencing a variable with an undefined value
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static analysis tools are software tools that examine the source code of a program without executing it. They can detect various types of issues, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, security vulnerabilities, and potential bugs12. However, static analysis tools cannot identify issues that depend on the runtime behavior or performance of the program, such as very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)3. MTBF is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF reflects how often a system or component fails during its expected lifetime. Static analysis tools cannot measure MTBF because they do not run the program or observe its failures. MTBF can only be estimated by dynamic testing, which involves executing the program under various conditions and collecting data on its failures4. Therefore, very low MTBF is an issue that cannot be identified by static analysis tools.
The other options, such as potentially endless loops, referencing a variable with an undefined value, and security vulnerabilities, are issues that can be identified by static analysis tools. Static analysis tools can detect potentially endless loops by analyzing the control flow and data flow of the program and checking for conditions that may never become false5. Static analysis tools can detect referencing a variable with an undefined value by checking the scope and initialization of variables and reporting any use of uninitialized variables6. Static analysis tools can detect security vulnerabilities by checking for common patterns of insecure code, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting, and weak encryption. References = What Is Static Analysis? Static Code Analysis Tools - Perforce Software, How Static Code Analysis Works | Perforce, Static Code Analysis: Techniques, Top 5 Benefits & 3 Challenges, What is MTBF? Mean Time Between Failures Explained | Perforce, Static analysis tools - Software Testing MCQs - CareerRide, ISTQB_Chapter3 | Quizizz, [Static Code Analysis for Security Vulnerabilities | Perforce].
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?
- A. Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.
- B. Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.
- C. Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.
- D. Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Maintenance testing is carried outwhenever changes are made to an existing system, including enhancements, defect fixes, and system migrations (C). It is not limited to adaptive maintenance (A) and is needed even when no defects are reported (B). Test cases are essential to validate fixes and prevent regressions (D).
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.3 - Maintenance Testing
NEW QUESTION # 87
A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?
- A. The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.
- B. The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.
- C. The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.
- D. The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test. It includes activities such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and analysis of documents, code, and models. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, before they become more expensive and difficult to fix in later stages. Static testing can also improve the quality of the software or system by preventing defects from being introduced in the first place. Static testing can complement dynamic testing, which involves executing the software or system under test and checking the results against expected outcomes. Dynamic testing can find defects that static testing may miss, such as performance, usability, or integration issues.
However, dynamic testing alone is not sufficient to ensure quality, as it may not cover all possible scenarios, inputs, or paths. Therefore, a test manager who decides to skip static testing is making a wrong decision, as he or she is ignoring the benefits of static testing and relying solely on dynamic testing, which may not be effective or efficient enough to find and prevent defects. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.1.1, page 14; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0,
2018, page 36; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 3, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?
- A. Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.
- B. Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution
- C. Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.
- D. Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
Answer: B
Explanation:
State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system
- B. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard
- C. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics
- D. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests
Answer: C
Explanation:
Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics.
Non-functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 90
For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases
Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?
- A. TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3
- B. TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1
- C. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1
- D. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because it follows the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order. TC4, TC3, and TC2 are executed first because they have the highest priority. TC6 is executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC2. TC1 is executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC5. Finally, TC5 is executed last because it has the lowest priority. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which sequence of state transitions is INCORRECT in accordance with the following description?
To provide for disaster recovery a system (designated as A) has been provided with a backup system (designated as B). Only one of them can be active at a time. When A goes down, B becomes active. When A comes back up then B becomes inactive and A becomes active again. However, when A is down and B also goes down then a message is sent to the system administrator. After this once A comes back up, A becomes active or if B comes up then B becomes Active.
- A. A is active and B is inactive then A goes down, B becomes active.
- B. A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time. A should become the active system and B should be inactive
- C. A comes up when B is active and A was down. Now A becomes active and B becomes inactive.
- D. A is active and B is inactive. A goes down. B becomes active then B goes down. A is made active
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the description provided, when both systems A and B come back up at the same time, the process should involve a decision about which system should become active. However, the description states that if both systems come up simultaneously, one should become active based on a specific condition or precedence. Generally, in disaster recovery systems, there are protocols to avoid both systems becoming active simultaneously to prevent conflicts. Therefore, the transition where both A and B come back up at the same time and A becomes active while B becomes inactive without any conflict or decision-making step is incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?
- A. Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.
- B. Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.
- C. In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.
- D. Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Black-box testing techniques focus ontesting the functionality of the software without knowledge of its internal workings(D). They derive test cases fromspecifications, requirements, or expected behavior.
Option Adescribes exploratory testing,Bcontradicts the definition by focusing on implementation, andC incorrectly includes "implied behavior," which is not a core characteristic of black-box testing.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2 - Black-Box Testing Techniques
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?
- A. Covering all states at least once
- B. Covering only start and end states
- C. Can't be determined
- D. Covering all transitions at least once
Answer: D
Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions.
Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. References = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section
4.2.3, page 49-50.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?
- A. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems
- B. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques
- C. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code
- D. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more defects. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 95
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