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NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following isNOTan experience-based technique?
- A. Exploratory testing
- B. Error guessing
- C. Boundary value analysis.
- D. Fault attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
Boundary value analysis is not an experience-based technique, but rather a specification-based technique (also known as black-box technique). Experience-based techniques are techniques that rely on the tester's knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Some examples of experience-based techniques are error guessing, exploratory testing, fault attack, checklist-based testing, etc. Specification-based techniques are techniques that rely on the tester's analysis and interpretation of the requirements or specifications of the system under test to derive and select test cases based on some criteria or rules. Some examples of specification-based techniques are equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, decision table testing, state transition testing, etc.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 31.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Use Scenario 1 "Happy Tomatoes" (from the previous question).
When running test caseTC_59, the actual result fort = 35degrees Celsius isOUTPUT = Xinstead of the expected output.
Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?
- A. Identification of the test object and test environment
- B. Expected results and actual results
- C. A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported
- D. Description of the structure of the test team
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:A defect report should contain relevant details to help developersreproduce and fix the defect efficiently. The essential elements include:
* Test object & environment (A)- To ensure reproducibility.
* Title & summary (B)- For quick identification.
* Expected vs. actual results (D)- To describe the discrepancy.
Thestructure of the test team (C)is irrelevant for defect tracking and resolution.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?
- A. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.
- B. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.
- C. The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.
- D. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acceptance testing is a level of testing performed to verify that a software product meets the agreed acceptance criteria and is acceptable for delivery. Acceptance testing is often performed by the customers or system users, who are the main stakeholders of the software product. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects, as defects should have been detected and fixed in earlier levels of testing. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release, unless there are any changes or fixes that require re-testing. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually part of acceptance testing, as these are important aspects of system reliability and security that affect the customer satisfaction and trust. Therefore, statement A is not correct, while statements B, C and D are correct. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 20-21.
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which of the following statements about testware are correct?
I When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released II All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management III. The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance IV The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware
- A. II, IV
- B. II, Ill
- C. I, IV
- D. I, Ill
Answer: B
Explanation:
Testware is a term that refers to all artifacts produced during the testing process, such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, defect reports, etc. The following statements about testware are correct:
II) All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management. Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management applies to all testware, as it helps ensure their quality and consistency, track their changes and defects, control their versions and access rights, and link them to other artifacts.
III) The testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance. Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing requires testware from previous testing activities or phases, such as test cases, test data, test results, etc. Therefore, the testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance testing, such as support team or maintenance team. The following statements about testware are incorrect:
I) When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released. This statement is incorrect, as some testware resources may still be needed for future testing activities or phases, such as maintenance testing or regression testing. Therefore, when closing the test activities, some testware resources should be archived and stored for future use, while others can be uninstalled and released.
IV) The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. This statement is incorrect, as the testers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. The testers should ensure that they have access to all necessary testware resources and that they are installed and configured properly before starting the test execution. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 58-61.
NEW QUESTION # 124
A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?
- A. The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.
- B. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.
- C. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.
- D. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix. This is also known as regression testing, which is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of a fix or a modification. The other options are incorrect reasons for re-running the tests. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded, because this ignores the possibility of new defects caused by the fix. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests, because this assumes that developer tests are sufficient and reliable, which may not be true. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated, because this does not address the impact of the fix on other test cases or functionalities. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 41.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following statements about static testing is true?
- A. Static testing is NOT suitable for finding coding defects. For this, dynamic testing is necessary.
- B. It makes sense to perform static testing before dynamic testing, because defects can be found earlier or at lower cost.
- C. Static testing should be done instead of dynamic testing, as both find the same defects.
- D. Static tests are NOT suitable to evaluate the quality of work results.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 126
A possible risk of introducing test automation is:
- A. the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.
- B. the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.
- C. the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.
- D. the tool may create additional development dependencies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
One possible risk of introducing test automation is that the selected tool may not be fit-for-purpose. This means that the tool might not meet the specific needs and requirements of the project, leading to inefficiencies and possibly failing to provide the expected benefits. It is crucial to evaluate and select the appropriate tool based on the project's context and objectives. The ISTQB CTFL syllabus highlights the importance of careful tool evaluation and selection to ensure it aligns with the testing goals and the development environment.
NEW QUESTION # 127
Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):
- A. A4 - B3 - C2 - D1
- B. A2 - B1 - C4 - D3
- C. Improved quality of the test basis
- D. A1 - B4 - C3 - D2
- E. Better cooperation between development and testing
... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:
The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement
The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement
The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members The possibility of addressing and solving deficiencies in the extent and quality of the requirements Which ONE of the following options presents the BEST mapping between benefits and characteristics from retrospectives? - F. A3 - B2 - C1 - D4
- G. Increased test effectiveness/efficiency
- H. Team bonding and learning
Answer: G
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Retrospectives provide value by fostering improvement and collaboration. The correct mapping is:
* A2: Team bonding occurs when teams openly discuss issues.
* B1: Test effectiveness increases when process improvements are implemented.
* C4: Test basis improves by addressing requirement deficiencies.
* D3: Cooperation improves through regular review of collaboration.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.1.6 - Retrospectives
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?
- A. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised
- B. The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage
- C. Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage
- D. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised
Answer: C
Explanation:
Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all branches in the control flow of the code are executed at least once by the test cases. A branch is a basic block of code that has a single entry point and a single exit point, and a decision is a point in the code where the control flow can take more than one direction, such as an if-then-else statement, a switch-case statement, a loop statement, etc. The decision outcomes are the possible paths that can be taken from a decision, such as the then branch or the else branch, the case branch or the default branch, the loop body or the loop exit, etc. The other statements are false, because:
The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually higher than that needed to achieve full statement coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all executable statements in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. This is because branch coverage is a stronger criterion than statement coverage, as it implies statement coverage, but not vice versa. For example, a single test case can achieve full statement coverage for an if-then-else statement, but two test cases are needed to achieve full branch coverage, as both the then branch and the else branch need to be exercised.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have not necessarily been exercised, as unconditional branches are branches that do not depend on any decision, and are always executed, such as a goto statement, a break statement, a return statement, etc. Unconditional branches are not part of the branch coverage criterion, as they do not represent different paths in the control flow of the code. However, they are part of the statement coverage criterion, as they are executable statements in the code.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have not necessarily been exercised, as a decision table is a test design technique that represents the logical relationships between multiple conditions and their corresponding actions, in a tabular format. A decision table can have more combinations of conditions than the number of decision outcomes in the code, as each condition can have two or more possible values, such as true or false, yes or no, etc. For example, a decision table with four conditions can have 16 combinations of conditions, but the corresponding code may have only two decision outcomes, such as pass or fail. To exercise all combinations of conditions in a decision table, a stronger test coverage criterion is needed, such as condition combination coverage, which requires that all possible combinations of condition outcomes in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQBCertified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.3.1, Test Coverage Criteria Based on the Structure of the Software ISTQBGlossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Branch Coverage, Statement Coverage, Branch, Decision, Decision Outcome, Unconditional Branch, Decision Table, Condition Combination Coverage
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?
- A. A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.
- B. A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person
- C. A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people
- D. A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 130
Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank's ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:
Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?
- A. DT2, DT3
- B. DT3, DT4
- C. DT1.DT2
- D. DT1, DT4
Answer: A
Explanation:
Decision table testing is used to analyze combinations of inputs to determine the appropriate outputs, often based on specific rules or conditions.
For the problem statement:
Rule 1: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = True) Outcome: Transaction = Approved Rule 4: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = False) Outcome: Transaction = Declined The additional test cases are:
DT1: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Insufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = True) Outcome: Transaction = Declined DT2: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = False, Correct PIN = True) Outcome: Transaction = Approved DT3: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Insufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = False) Outcome: Transaction = Declined DT4: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = False, Correct PIN = False) Outcome: Transaction = Declined From the given test cases, DT2 covers the scenario where Fast Cash is False, which is not covered in the initial cases. DT3 covers the case where Balance is Insufficient and PIN is incorrect.
Combining Rules 1 and 4 with DT2 and DT3 covers all the scenarios.
Reference:
Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
NEW QUESTION # 131
A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:
- A. Test implementation
- B. Test design
- C. Test analysis
- D. Test monitoring and control
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created during test implementation. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3
NEW QUESTION # 132
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?
- A. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
- B. The version of the application is missing
- C. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)
- D. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
Answer: B
Explanation:
A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one. Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?
I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.
II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.
III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.
IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.
V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.
- A. II. IV, V
- B. II, v
- C. I, Ill
- D. I, III. Iv
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following statements about re-testing and regression testing are true:
* I) Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed. Re-testing is a type of testing that verifies that a defect has been successfully resolved by executing a test case that previously failed due to that defect.
Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed and delivered to ensure that it does not cause any new failures or side effects.
* III) Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level. Re-testing and regression testing are not limited to a specific test level, but can be applied at any level depending on the context and objectives. For example, re-testing and regression testing can be performed at unit level, integration level, system level or acceptance level.
* IV) Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes.
Regression testing may include various types of testing depending on the scope and purpose of the changes. For example, regression testing may include functional testing to check if the software meets its requirements, non-functional testing to check if the software meets its quality attributes, or structural testing to check if the software meets its design or code standards. The following statement about re- testing and regression testing is false:
* II) Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed. Regression testing is not always necessary after a defect is fixed, as some defects may have a low impact or low likelihood of affecting other parts of the software. Regression testing should be performed after a defect is fixed only if there is a risk of introducing new defects or causing existing defects due to the changes made to fix the defect. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 19; Chapter 4, page 45.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
- B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- C. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
- D. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
Answer: D
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 135
What does configuration management enable for testing?
- A. It enables the derivation of test cases and test data.
- B. It enables the creation of test progress reports.
- C. It enables the scheduling of test resources.
- D. It enables the versioning of the test elements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?
- A. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code
- B. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems
- C. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques
- D. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more defects. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 137
Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?
- A. A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions
- B. A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product
- C. A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism
- D. A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key difference between the mindsets for test activities and development activities lies in the objectives: a tester is primarily concerned with finding defects to ensure product quality, while a developer focuses on designing and building solutions. This distinct focus helps ensure thorough quality checks and balances within the software development life cycle (ISTQB not-for-profit association).
Reference:
ISTQBCertified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0: https://istqb-main-web-prod.s3.amazonaws.com/media/documents/ISTQB_CTFL_Syllabus-v4.0.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 138
A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.
Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.
Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement
- A. It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)
- B. It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)
- C. It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)
- D. It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)
Answer: A
Explanation:
A defect is a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function. A defect can cause harm to the end customer, the company, or both, depending on the impact and severity of the failure. In this case, the defect in the code causes the system to lock down accounts that have an overdraft higher than $1000, instead of $10,000. This can cause harm to the end customer, as they may lose access to their funds and face inconvenience or financial difficulties. This can also cause harm to the company, as they may lose customer trust and satisfaction, face legal issues or complaints, or incur additional costs for fixing the defect and restoring the accounts. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 3-4.
NEW QUESTION # 139
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